I realize this is a little late, seeing as this post was written over a month ago, but it was so interesting I felt the need to reblog it. Stephen Carlson wrote up an excellent (yet brief) analysis of the Greek in Gal. 3.1 where Paul writes “Ὦ ἀνόητι Γαλάται, τίς ὑμᾶς ἐβάσκανεν, οἷς κατ’ ὀφθαλμοὺς Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς προεγράφη ἐσταυρωμένος” where the NIV translates as “You foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? Before your very eyes Jesus Christ was clearly portrayed as crucified.” He writes:
If I have any complaint about the translation as a translation, it would be over its lack of originality. Is “before whose/your eyes” really the best way to express Paul’s diction in Gal 3:1? Have translators really been exercising independent judgment about this phrase, or have they fallen into a kind of translational inertia in rendering Paul’s Greek?
Well worth a look if you find the time.